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The Pentecostal Movement’s view of the continuity of tongues in Acts and 1 Corinthians.

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Question 1.
Do you think that Pentecostal’s practice of speaking in tongues is in continuity with the experience in the New Testament Church? Why do you think so?
Question 2.
What do you think is the difference between “speaking in tongues” in Acts 2 and 1 Corinthians 11-13? Or do you think there is no difference?
Question 3.
Do you think the FM has lost its emphasis on speaking in tongues? Why (not)? What should we do to regain our emphasis?
Question 4.

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